Unfortunately your questions lacks some specificity that would assist in formulating a helpful answer. In law, as a common law spouse you will generally not be liable for your Ex’s debts that you did not co-sign for. This suggests that the temporary “order to pay” may be unrelated to that loan repayment obligation; you may be wrongly assuming that the two are connected.
In other words, in light of the overall context of the common-law relationship, the judge may have seen fit to impose an loan-independent financial obligation on you – for example to help your Ex pay the expenses on a jointly-owned asset such as a home, for which you are both on title. The judge may simply be ordering you to pay your share of those expenses (and it will be up to you to come up with that money) – the judge may not be ordering you to repay your Ex’s loan in which you had no part.
In any case, the terms of the temporary order should clearly specify what financial obligations the order to pay is intended to cover.